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    • CommentRowNumber1.
    • CommentAuthorzskoda
    • CommentTimeMay 12th 2011
    • CommentRowNumber2.
    • CommentAuthorzskoda
    • CommentTimeMay 12th 2011
    • (edited May 12th 2011)

    I added much material to localizing subcategory. I am sure there are some errors there, I am still very unhappy with the state of the entry. I would like to create in a way that it would be clear how the approaches in different treatments are equivalent and that it would enable the reader to use them. Of course, I trust mostly Pierre Gabriel and his thesis. Unfortunately some of the terminology and conventions are not followed in many of the later references, so it is difficult to spot when people are imprecise or the usage of the same term is slightly different. Besides some of the equivalences have their natural generality which is difficult to decide on the basis of the literature.

    • CommentRowNumber3.
    • CommentAuthorYaron
    • CommentTimeJul 21st 2011

    Added the following query box to quotient category: “The above definition of a quotient category appears to be different from that of CWM (p. 51 of the second edition), where a quotient category is obtained by identifying arrows. Perhaps there is a need for disambiguation?”

    • CommentRowNumber4.
    • CommentAuthorzskoda
    • CommentTimeJul 21st 2011
    • (edited Jul 21st 2011)

    That is a different notion. Cat is taken as a 1-category and one takes an internal equivalence relation there and gets a quotient of the equivalence relation. This can be restated as certain coequalizer in Cat and also if one wishes called that way. Let me think how to disambiguate in a wise and modern way.

    • CommentRowNumber5.
    • CommentAuthorYaron
    • CommentTimeJul 22nd 2011

    Thanks!

    • CommentRowNumber6.
    • CommentAuthorTobyBartels
    • CommentTimeJul 22nd 2011

    I would not expect that the notion of quotient category that comes from thinking of CatCat as a mere 11-category would be the most useful one, although obviously it could be useful for some things. I also wouldn’t be at all surprised if we got two separate notions (11-quotient and 22-quotient?). Compare the issues at subcategory.

    • CommentRowNumber7.
    • CommentAuthorTobyBartels
    • CommentTimeJul 22nd 2011

    In English-language ring theory, one says both “quotient field” and “field of quotients” for the same concept (the … of an integral domain); while the first term is older, the second is used to avoid confusion with quotient rings. (To be even clearer, one can even say “field of fractions”, which I usually do.)

    We could do the same with Zoran’s quotient category (“category of quotients” or even “category of fractions”), which appears to be analogous.

    • CommentRowNumber8.
    • CommentAuthorzskoda
    • CommentTimeJul 22nd 2011
    • (edited Jul 22nd 2011)

    Toby, the difference is not only weather it is 1- or 2-categorical but also the type of input data, so here we have rather different kinds of limits, not only different categorical dimension. In MacLane type quotient one morally identifies some morphisms witin morphism sets and in localizations one inverts some things in order to make certain morphisms isos. Firthermore when one says quotient category in the latter, although 2-categorical case, one really means a representative of ’quotient’ with strict universal property (strict localization vs. localization). Surely words like categories of fractions are also used. We should somehow clearly record the variants, while we can not rectify that field which is too old and with too many variants to be rectified.

    • CommentRowNumber9.
    • CommentAuthorTobyBartels
    • CommentTimeJul 23rd 2011
    • (edited Jul 23rd 2011)

    Post #6 is not about the difference between localisation and quotienting; it is about quotienting only. (They seem to be almost completely different things to me, another reason to use different terminology.)

    • CommentRowNumber10.
    • CommentAuthorMike Shulman
    • CommentTimeJul 23rd 2011

    Well, 2-categorically, localization is a coinverter, which is a 2-colimit that at least bears some relationship to a coequalizer. I do agree, though, that the origin of the word “quotient” is different in the two cases: in one case it is the arrows in the output that are “quotients” (fractions) of the arrows in the input whereas in the other case it is the whole output category that is a “quotient” of the input category.

    Perhaps the page quotient category should do mostly disambiguation, with the interesting material put on unambiguously named pages.

    • CommentRowNumber11.
    • CommentAuthorTobyBartels
    • CommentTimeJul 23rd 2011

    unambiguously named pages

    Which would be what? category of quotients, 1-quotient category, and 2-quotient category? But we should also have a page, analogous to subcategory, that treats the naïve notion in CWM, even if it is evil, and only quotient category seems to make sense for that.

    • CommentRowNumber12.
    • CommentAuthorYaron
    • CommentTimeJul 23rd 2011

    Toby #11: While I know nothing of nn-categories for n>1 (and so I do not understand most of the above discussion), I hope it is OK to ask the following question: from “the naïve notion in CWM, even if it is evil” it sounds (to me) as if the notion of CWM is something “bad” or “old” that should be avoided, and deserves an explanation only for historical reasons.

    But isn’t it common to identify arrows in categories in order to construct new categories? Isn’t this even part of the construction of categories of fractions (starting with the free category on the graph of CC augmented by formal inverses of arrows in Σ\Sigma and then identifying some arrows)? Thanks in advance for your answer.

    • CommentRowNumber13.
    • CommentAuthorTobyBartels
    • CommentTimeJul 24th 2011

    The meaning of ‘evil’ here is a technical one, and you shouldn’t take it too seriously. (See evil for discussion.) Ignoring higher categories, what this amounts to is that, while we consider two groups to be essentially the same if they’re isomorphic, we consider two categories to be essentially the same if they’re equivalent, even if they’re not isomorphic.

    The problem with the naïve notion of quotient category is not its answer to ‘What category do we get if we start with CC and identify these arrows?’; that’s fine. The problem is its answer to ‘Is DD a quotient of CC?’. The answer to this question can change if CC or DD is replaced with an equivalent category; basically, the answer is No in some cases (where DD has too many isomorphic objects for CC too handle) where it really ought to be Yes.

    There is some discussion of the dual question at subcategory.

    • CommentRowNumber14.
    • CommentAuthorYaron
    • CommentTimeJul 24th 2011
    • (edited Jul 24th 2011)

    Thanks very much, Toby! I’ve seen the notion of evil before here at the nnLab, but I needed the distinction you made between identifying arrows (which is fine) and asking which subcategories of a given categoty are entitled to be referred to as quotients. I have some more questions, but I’ll hold them until I read the discussion in subcategory.

    By the way, “quotient category” is the second time that I see that Borceux avoids the definition of “classical” evil concepts (the first time was when I noticed that he avoids defining creation of limits).

    Thanks again, Yaron

    Edit after Zoran’s following remark: the quotient of course need not be a subcategory, and the above “..and asking which…” should be replaced by “which categories are entitled to be referred to as quotients of a given category.” (Sorry for the confusion)

    • CommentRowNumber15.
    • CommentAuthorzskoda
    • CommentTimeJul 24th 2011
    • (edited Jul 24th 2011)

    I created entry strict localization. Terminology quotient category some use only for that case, but it is not uniform.

    and asking which subcategories of a given categoty are entitled to be referred to as quotients

    The quotient/localized category is not necessarily identifiable with a subcategory of the original category. For Borceux, and some others, they consider the exact reflective localizations on regular categories and call this localization by definition, but for a general localizations (i.e. just universal WW-inverting functors, like in Gabriel-Zisman or in Kashiwara-Schapira) the existence of an adjoint to the localization (which is then automatically fully faithful) is not required.

    • CommentRowNumber16.
    • CommentAuthorYaron
    • CommentTimeJul 24th 2011

    Zoran: Sorry, I meant “which categories are entitled to be referred to as quotients of a given category.” (Don’t know why I wrote it as I did - sorry for the confusion).

    • CommentRowNumber17.
    • CommentAuthorzskoda
    • CommentTimeJul 24th 2011

    Well, there is a factorization system on CatCat in which every functor F:CDF:C\to D among small categories is decomposed (uniquely up to iso) into the composition of an iterated (possibly strict) localization followed by a conservative functor. Namely, one takes the class WW of all morphisms in CC which are inverted by FF and localizes at that class, this gives the decomposition into the composition of a localization followed by some functor; if the rest is conservative one is done and the whole functor is a localization, but it is also possible that in the localized category there are some new morphisms which get also inverted by the second part, so one needs to continue and the iterated localization is obtained in the limit. Cf. Factorisation+systems (joyalscatlab).

    • CommentRowNumber18.
    • CommentAuthorYaron
    • CommentTimeJul 24th 2011

    Thanks for your answer, Zoran. I am a little confused now (most surely because of my lack of knowledge): my comment (“which categories are entitled…”) was regarding a previous comment of Toby, and concerned CWM’s definition of quotient category (which is, as far as I understand, completely different from “category of fractions”). At a first glance I am not sure whether your answer refers to the same issue – but I will look into the links in your answer from which I will benefit anyway. Thanks again and sorry for all the fuss.

    • CommentRowNumber19.
    • CommentAuthorzskoda
    • CommentTimeJul 24th 2011

    Sorry, I was not answering about the MacLane context, yet.

    • CommentRowNumber20.
    • CommentAuthorMike Shulman
    • CommentTimeJul 25th 2011

    Toby #11: Hmm, I suppose you may be right.

    • CommentRowNumber21.
    • CommentAuthorzskoda
    • CommentTimeMar 7th 2014
    • (edited Mar 7th 2014)

    Updates at thick subcategory (which now also redirects Serre quotient category, which is a specific localization at a (strongly) thick subcategory of an abelian category) and at torsion theory.

  1. Added to quotient category the basic example (abelian groups)/(torsion groups). As soon as the Stacks Project website is updated with the most recent changes from the GitHub repository, I will add a reference.

    • CommentRowNumber23.
    • CommentAuthorTim_Porter
    • CommentTimeJan 27th 2015
    • (edited Jan 27th 2015)

    I have tried to tidy up the wording a little in quotient category as it read awkwardly in some places.

    • CommentRowNumber24.
    • CommentAuthorvaleriadepaiva
    • CommentTimeSep 14th 2020
    hi,
    a totally ignorant question:
    trying to bypass the question of whether the name "quotient category" is transformed into three different ones
    category of quotients, 1-quotient category, and 2-quotient category or

    into two (CWM quotient category or thick subcategory) is the definition in English at the beginning of the entry ok?
    >given a category CC and a class of morphisms Σ⊂C\Sigma\subset C the category Σ −1C\Sigma^{-1} C equipped with a functor Q Σ:C→Σ −1CQ_\Sigma: C\to \Sigma^{-1} C sending all morphisms in Σ\Sigma to isos and which has a strict universal property, that is, for every other functor F:C→AF: C\to A inverting all morphisms in Σ\Sigma, there is a factorization F=F˜∘QF = \tilde{F}\circ Q.

    in particular a quotient category is a category, correct?
    • CommentRowNumber25.
    • CommentAuthorMike Shulman
    • CommentTimeSep 15th 2020

    I would presume that “there is a factorization” should be “there is a unique factorization”.

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