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I changed the name of discrete space to discrete object such that it is now consistent with codiscrete object.
Okay, good point.
I added a hatnote.
In discrete object, I saw two mentions of the diagonal map “X×X→X”, so I made them both X→X×X.
The first paragraph under Discrete Geometric Spaces puzzled me, where it says, “the converse holds if X satisfies the T0 separation axiom” (i.e., if the diagonal map is open, then X is discrete provided we assume T0). I don’t understand why we need that assumption.
Suppose X→X×X is an open map. In particular the image of the diagonal map is an open set in X×X, i.e., for each (x,x) there is a basic open U×V containing (x,x) that is entirely contained in the diagonal. Thus the subset {x}×V of U×V would also be entirely contained in the diagonal, i.e., (x,y)∈{x}×V implies x=y, for any y∈V. So the open V is the singleton {x}. (By similar reasoning, U is also the singleton {x}.) So {x} is open, for every x∈X. No separation axiom needed. Am I missing something?
A topological space has open diagonal if and only if it is discrete, indeed. I prefer this argument: for every x∈X, the intersection of the diagonal and {x}×X is the singleton {(x,x)}, hence {x} is open in X.
Oh, I see: the inverse image of the open Δ along y↦(x,y), for any given x∈X.
I went ahead and edited that point in.
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