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In this nWiki page it’s said: “Conversely, if is a proximity space, consider the family of sets of the form…” and then about finite families of sets.
I feel if we would allow only pairs of set (finite families of cardinality ) instead of any finite families the resulted uniformity would not change.
Is my conclusion that we can take only families of cardinality without change of the result correct? Or do I err?
If it is correct, let’s edit the page to include this result. I would like to see the proof.
It’s enough to prove that is representable as an intersection of sets of the form (where , conform to the formula for ).
Really, take and . Then
It remains to prove the last formula.
If we used only pairs, then we would not have a base but only a sub-base.
If it is established that using only pairs gives a subbase that generates this base (or even generates the same uniformity as this base), then that would be worth remarking.
The page base says that bases (and presumably subbases) for uniformities are trickier than topologies, but gives no details, and I don’t know the details.
It’s false: See this math.SE question.
Bases and subbases for uniformities (given by entourages) are described at uniform space. The tricky bit is that axioms 0–3 (as numbered there) are already a bit oversaturated (for simplicity), so you have to weaken these to get a proper notion of subbase. (Bases themselves are not tricky.)
I added a note to the page base that bases and subbases for uniformities are described at uniform space.
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