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• CommentRowNumber1.
• CommentAuthorUrs
• CommentTimeAug 29th 2014
• (edited Aug 29th 2014)

In some thread here (which I seem to have lost) there was the open question of whether the Selberg zeta function is indeed the zeta function of the corresponding Laplace operator. The answer is of course Yes, I have added the following paragraph to zeta function of a Riemann surface:

That the Selberg zeta function is indeed proportional to the zeta function of a Laplace operator is due to (D’Hoker-Phong 86, Sarnak 87), and that it is similarly related to the eta function of a Dirac operator on the given Riemann surface/hyperbolic manifold goes back to (Milson 78), with further development including (Park 01). For review of the literature on this relation see also the beginning of (Friedman 06).

(the links will only work from within the entry)