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I thought this would be straightforward, but now it seems I am stuck: for 𝒞 an ∞-category (model category) with products and 𝒞Δop its simplicial objects, let LΔ1𝒞Δop be the localization (Bousfield localization) at the morphisms (−)×Δ1→(−).
Is ∞Grpd≃LΔ1(∞Grpd)Δop?
To avoid confusion, let Tn be Δn regarded as degreewise discrete simplicial “space”. First, let us show that the projections Tn→T0 get inverted. But these are simplicial homotopy equivalences, so they become invertible if you invert the projection X×T1→X for every simplicial “space” X. Thus the local objects are precisely the “constant simplicial spaces”, if I’m not mistaken.
Left Bousfield localisation at a proper class is not known to be possible a priori, but in this case the local objects do turn out to form a reflective (∞,1)-subcategory, with reflector given by “geometric realisation” (i.e. codescent objects).
True, thanks. I was trying to see that from the n-cube spaces X(Δ1)n all being equivalent it follows that the n-simplex spaces Xn are all equivalent. But of course what you say is the right way to do it.
I have added that remark here (in the Examples-section at cohesive (infinity,1)-topos). Feel invited to expand, if you care.
Nice, thanks Zhen! Can you also characterize the objects of the slice ∞GpdΔop/X localized at T1?
I’m not sure. By adjunction, an object Y in the slice category is right orthogonal to X*A→X*B if and only if ∏XY is right orthogonal to A→B, so Y is right orthogonal to every Z×T1→Z×T0 in the slice category if and only if every ∏X(YZ) is right orthogonal to T1→T0, but I can’t really make heads or tails of that.
The special case where X is itself “constant” should be more straightforward. Assuming “geometric realisation” [Δop,∞Grpd/X]→∞Grpd/X continues to send simplicial homotopy equivalences to equivalences, the same analysis should work, yielding the same conclusion.
The special case where XX is itself “constant” should be more straightforward.
Yes, internally: a map with modal codomain is modal iff it has modal fibers.
Given f:Y→X and g:Z→X in the slice over X, I believe that ∏X(fg) (which I assume is what you mean in #6 by ∏XYZ) should be the same as ∏Zg*f. So Y is right orthogonal to every Z×XT1→Z in the slice over X iff g*Y is right orthogonal to Z×T1→Z in the slice over Z for every g:Z→X. And it’s probably enough to consider the universal cases Z=Xn×Tn…
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