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    • CommentRowNumber1.
    • CommentAuthorUrs
    • CommentTimeOct 19th 2014
    • (edited Oct 19th 2014)

    I thought this would be straightforward, but now it seems I am stuck: for 𝒞 an -category (model category) with products and 𝒞Δop its simplicial objects, let LΔ1𝒞Δop be the localization (Bousfield localization) at the morphisms ()×Δ1().

    Is GrpdLΔ1(Grpd)Δop?

    • CommentRowNumber2.
    • CommentAuthorZhen Lin
    • CommentTimeOct 19th 2014
    • (edited Oct 19th 2014)

    To avoid confusion, let Tn be Δn regarded as degreewise discrete simplicial “space”. First, let us show that the projections TnT0 get inverted. But these are simplicial homotopy equivalences, so they become invertible if you invert the projection X×T1X for every simplicial “space” X. Thus the local objects are precisely the “constant simplicial spaces”, if I’m not mistaken.

    Left Bousfield localisation at a proper class is not known to be possible a priori, but in this case the local objects do turn out to form a reflective (,1)-subcategory, with reflector given by “geometric realisation” (i.e. codescent objects).

    • CommentRowNumber3.
    • CommentAuthorUrs
    • CommentTimeOct 19th 2014

    True, thanks. I was trying to see that from the n-cube spaces X(Δ1)n all being equivalent it follows that the n-simplex spaces Xn are all equivalent. But of course what you say is the right way to do it.

    • CommentRowNumber4.
    • CommentAuthorUrs
    • CommentTimeOct 19th 2014

    I have added that remark here (in the Examples-section at cohesive (infinity,1)-topos). Feel invited to expand, if you care.

    • CommentRowNumber5.
    • CommentAuthorMike Shulman
    • CommentTimeOct 20th 2014

    Nice, thanks Zhen! Can you also characterize the objects of the slice GpdΔop/X localized at T1?

    • CommentRowNumber6.
    • CommentAuthorZhen Lin
    • CommentTimeOct 20th 2014

    I’m not sure. By adjunction, an object Y in the slice category is right orthogonal to X*AX*B if and only if XY is right orthogonal to AB, so Y is right orthogonal to every Z×T1Z×T0 in the slice category if and only if every X(YZ) is right orthogonal to T1T0, but I can’t really make heads or tails of that.

    The special case where X is itself “constant” should be more straightforward. Assuming “geometric realisation” [Δop,Grpd/X]Grpd/X continues to send simplicial homotopy equivalences to equivalences, the same analysis should work, yielding the same conclusion.

    • CommentRowNumber7.
    • CommentAuthorMike Shulman
    • CommentTimeOct 21st 2014

    The special case where XX is itself “constant” should be more straightforward.

    Yes, internally: a map with modal codomain is modal iff it has modal fibers.

    • CommentRowNumber8.
    • CommentAuthorMike Shulman
    • CommentTimeApr 7th 2015

    Given f:YX and g:ZX in the slice over X, I believe that X(fg) (which I assume is what you mean in #6 by XYZ) should be the same as Zg*f. So Y is right orthogonal to every Z×XT1Z in the slice over X iff g*Y is right orthogonal to Z×T1Z in the slice over Z for every g:ZX. And it’s probably enough to consider the universal cases Z=Xn×Tn