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created first law of thought
Makes me think of when is one thing equal to some other thing?.
The formulation of the second law on the Wikipedia page is something I haven’t encountered, .
Makes me wonder if , e.g. in particular , doesn’t make sense somewhere.
In the setting of a category with zero object you have . I guess one should point to AT-category.
David, could you explain what you meant in your last comment? What is meant by ?
A side remark is that any cartesian closed category with zero object is trivial (i.e., equivalent to the terminal category). For any object we have since is initial and has a right adjoint; we also have since is terminal. Thus for every .
Sorry, I was using Nikolaj’s notation (at least as I guessed what it meant): is the function type, ie …… ./… ….
….
:-(
Blerg, obviously wrong. Never mind, it was just some random emission… :-/ (Edit: Was travelling last night on the train at the end of a long day of travelling, and didn’t think before I posted)
added the following to the list of references:
In Gottfried Leibniz’s unpublished but famous manuscript on logic (from some time in 1683-1716), reproduced In English translation in
it says, after statement of the identity of indiscernibles and then the indiscernibility of identicals, that
and are, of course, said to be the same
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