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Can anyone help out with this MO question? I remember wondering about that myself, and not finding any answer.
Don’t know off the bat, but looking at our entry rig category, I was surprised to see a result referred to as Baez’s conjecture (that the category of finite sets and bijections is the initial example in a suitable sense). Surely this wouldn’t be such a challenge to prove, would it?
I see John had written “Conjecture (John Baez)” and Toby gave it the section name, “Baez’s conjecture”.
I guess the inability to represent two monoidal operations is impinging on Peirce and Spencer Brown in their respective decisions to use juxtaposition to represent conjunction and disjunction.
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