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    • CommentRowNumber1.
    • CommentAuthorDavid_Corfield
    • CommentTimeMay 9th 2016
    • (edited May 9th 2016)

    I’ve been having a chat with someone worried about the weakness of identity in HoTT. Say you define a modified noun, like handsome man, by dependent sum with a mere proposition handsome(m). Then despite any two warrants, pp and qq, for handsome(John) being equal, if I now have a further dependency, say, events of handsome men, then I have only an isomorphism between events(John, p) and events(John, q) when I should have equality.

    Some thoughts in response. Presumably it should be the case that the type is properly dependent on the modified noun. I mean, one might take Events(x) to be dependent on men in general, then restrict to Events for handsome men. Since the events don’t depend on the handsomeness of the man, that might sound reasonable.

    Take ’Confessions of opium eaters’.

    Say I have,

    x:Humanconfessions(x):Typex: Human \vdash confessions(x): Type

    x:Humanopiumeating(x):Typex: Human \vdash opium-eating(x): Type

    Then I form,

    x:man||opiumeating(x)||:Propx: man \vdash ||opium-eating(x)||: Prop

    and the dependent sum

    opiumeater:= x:Human||opiumeating(x)||opium-eater := \sum_{x:Human} ||opium-eating(x)||

    Then, yes, I may form the new variant on confessions, let’s say confessions*, which is dependent on opium-eaters:

    (x,a): x:Human||opiumeating||confessions*(x,a):=confessions(x)(x, a): \sum_{x: Human} ||opium-eating|| \vdash confessions*(x, a) := confessions(x)

    But perhaps we do have cases where the dependency is on the modification too.

    Biology comes to mind: the children born of a woman.

    x:Humanfemale(x):Prop x: Human \vdash female(x): Prop

    Woman:= x:Humanfemale(x)Woman := \sum_{x: Human} female(x)

    (x,t):WomanBornChild(x,t):Type(x, t) : Woman \vdash BornChild(x, t): Type

    Given (Eve, p), (Eve, q) : Woman, we know that p = q: female(Eve), but then BornChild(Eve, p) is only known to be isomorphic to BornChild(Eve, q), is it?

    Do we have even (Eve, p) = (Eve, q)? Oh, is this where that heterogeneous equality shows up? So here an identity ’over’ the identity on Eve?

    Say we have b: (p = q), do I then get my ’identity over’ to provide an isomorphism from BornChild(Eve, p) to BornChild(Eve, q)?

    But I want these to be the same children. Should I somehow say that BornChild(x, t) is a subtype of Human, and use the latter to provide an identity?

    • CommentRowNumber2.
    • CommentAuthorMike Shulman
    • CommentTimeMay 9th 2016

    I have only an isomorphism between events(John, p) and events(John, q) when I should have equality.

    But isomorphism is equal to equality, by univalence!

    • CommentRowNumber3.
    • CommentAuthorDavid_Corfield
    • CommentTimeMay 9th 2016

    So perhaps the worry is that both are to be thought of as subsets of some type Events, and one wants these to be exactly the same subsets.

    • CommentRowNumber4.
    • CommentAuthorMike Shulman
    • CommentTimeMay 9th 2016

    Where “the same” means… isomorphic?

    In type theory a subset of a type EE is either a monomorphic function SES \hookrightarrow E or a characteristic function χ S:EProp\chi_S : E\to Prop. In the first case, two subsets are the same (by univalence) if we have SSS\cong S' commuting with the injections to EE, and in the second case they are the same (by function extensionality and univalence) if we have χ S(e)χ S(e)\chi_S(e) \leftrightarrow \chi_{S'}(e) for all e:Ee:E.