Want to take part in these discussions? Sign in if you have an account, or apply for one below
Vanilla 1.1.10 is a product of Lussumo. More Information: Documentation, Community Support.
That is a good example!
The various parts of this page seem inconsistent to me. If a mathematical object is interpreted by a formalist as a term, then it must be a precisely defined thing, so that the nebulous not-precisely-defined notion of -category would not count as a “mathematical object” even to a Platonist.
Do Platonists actually believe that even imprecisely defined notions like -category “exist” in the Platonic sense? I have generally interpreted Platonist views of mathematics to be talking about the existence of precisely defined mathematical notions such as quasicategories or complete Segal spaces. (I suppose in order to answer this question one would first have to answer the question of whether there are any actual Platonists not made of straw, which I don’t really know the answer to either.)
Do Platonists actually believe that even imprecisely defined notions like -category “exist” in the Platonic sense?
I’m certain most of them do. Before Eilenberg and Mac Lane knew how to construct Eilenberg-Mac Lane spaces, they had an abiding faith that such had to “exist” (and I’m not even claiming that Mac Lane, for one, considered himself a Platonist – certainly he didn’t later in life).
I’m not sure what is meant in this conversation by ’Platonist’. Do people mean an advocate of the currently held position within the philosophy of mathematics known as ’Platonism’? I find it painful to read such unfruitful care being lavished on a topic, but one should probably have a look at SEP: Platonism in the Philosophy of Mathematics.
Before Eilenberg and Mac Lane knew how to construct Eilenberg-Mac Lane spaces, they had an abiding faith that such had to “exist” (and I’m not even claiming that Mac Lane, for one, considered himself a Platonist – certainly he didn’t later in life).
I don’t consider that an example for two reasons. First, my question was specifically about Platonists, so we would need evidence that Mac Lane did consider himself a Platonist at that time. (Otherwise, the relevant meaning of “exist” is totally different.) Second, the notion of Eilenberg-MacLane space is precisely well-defined, whether or not one knows how to construct them.
I’m talking about a belief that “model-independent” -categories really exist right now in a Platonist sense, even if there is no precise mathematical way to define them; which is different from believing that there is a precise definition of such objects that we will discover one day. This belief is how I read the current text on the page; if that wasn’t what it was intended to claim, then maybe we can change it to be more clear.
Do people mean an advocate of the currently held position within the philosophy of mathematics known as ’Platonism’?
That’s what I mean. What else might one mean?
What else might one mean?
Well, the discussion above seemed to be working with some informal mathematicians’ sense (arguably closer to Bernays and Gödel’s, and very likely closer to Plato’s, than the current version). Your question
Do Platonists actually believe that even imprecisely defined notions like (∞,1)-category “exist” in the Platonic sense?
wouldn’t make sense to a current platonist. It’s not a question of the existence of “notions” (or concepts or ideas), but of “objects”. If they’d ever heard of them, they might wonder whether (∞,1)-categories exist.
I’m talking about a belief that “model-independent” -categories really exist right now in a Platonist sense, even if there is no precise mathematical way to define them; which is different from believing that there is a precise definition of such objects that we will discover one day. This belief is how I read the current text on the page; if that wasn’t what it was intended to claim, then maybe we can change it to be more clear.
Better ask Dmitri directly what he meant then. I think I can see how you come to that reading.
Yeah, Platonism is not the idea that any given definition has an instance.
First, my question was specifically about Platonists, so we would need evidence that Mac Lane did consider himself a Platonist at that time.
I don’t see the relevance of what MacLane defined himself, unless you work with a sociological definition of platonism, which you don’t according to your answer:
Do people mean an advocate of the currently held position within the philosophy of mathematics known as ’Platonism’?
That’s what I mean. What else might one mean?
The point of dispute seems to be the epistemological content of platonism. The “currently held position within the philosophy of mathematics known as ’Platonism’” is void of supposing any “access” (meaning ways to know about) to particular mathematical objects. But for the disputed example regarding -categories, a mathematician exactly needs such an (perhaps not very reliable) access to Platonic objects in order to have any confidence in its existence.
Yeah, Platonism is not the idea that any given definition has an instance.
Just to make sure, what is it that you reject (I guess you mean the second option):
that every definition has its own corresponding object (so even if two definitions are equivalent (in some sense); or perhaps definitions have an instance even if there can not be an object corresponding to them?), so basically there is a correspondence between “instances” and the strings expressing the definitions
objects/instances correspond to the definitions, but two definitions can share the same object.
To clarify what I meant when I wrote the article:
Newton, Leibniz, and Euler worked with infinitesimals that (in their time) were not precisely defined, but they accepted their existence.
Likewise, right now we may not have a precise definition of (∞,1)-categories (other than specific models for them), but some of us may accept their existence nevertheless.
It’s not a question of the existence of “notions” (or concepts or ideas), but of “objects”.
Sorry for using a confusing word. I’m not sure exactly what the difference is between saying that a notion exists and saying that an object exists, but I meant whatever one you’re talking about, which I guess is “objects”.
some of us may accept their existence nevertheless.
Are you such a person?
And if so, what exactly do you mean by “existence”?
I guess so. I act and interpret them in the same way as I would act and interpret the notion of an electron in physics. While we do not have a precise rigorous mathematical description of an electron that encompasses all of its uses, electrons do cast (Platonic) shadows in the mathematical world, e.g., Schrödinger’s equation, etc.
So electrons currently exist in the same way as (∞,1)-categories. And perhaps one day we will have a precise mathematical definition of an electron that does encompass all of its uses, just as one day we might have a precise definition of an (∞,1)-category (in homotopy type theory, maybe?).
I certainly believe that model-independent -categories exist as an idea, which is the same sense in which I believe that precisely defined mathematical objects exist. But I would not call the former a “mathematical object”; I would reserve that name for things that have been precisely defined. Perhaps others feel differently; but I think it would be good for this page to at least mention that there is such a dichotomy. What would you think about that?
I am certainly fine with mentioning this. The very point of the page was to point multiple (possibly incompatible) points of view.
But, to be clear, do you believe that model-independent -categories exist in the same sense that, say, quasicategories do?
Re #21: “Exists” is ambiguous here, since it also has a formalist rigorous meaning (). This is not the meaning used above, and only quasicategories exist in the formalist sense.
But (∞,1)-categories and electrons definitely platonically exist in the same way as quasicategories and Schrödinger’s equation.
since physical realists are much more common.
Which is why I gave this analogy with electrons, to make connections with the larger community of physical realists.
then this is read as philosophical commitment to the latter.
I rewrote this sentence to avoid such impressions.
1 to 28 of 28