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This thread is a continuation of the discussion occurring here http://mathoverflow.net/questions/164845/non-continuous-differentiability-for-differential-forms/
I think I agree with you that using an error term of isn’t going to fly. What does work (I believe!) are bounds of the form .
Here is an example using the new definition.
Let be a one form on .
Then
Since is the usual formula for , we will be done if we can show that can be bounded in absolute value by something that looks like . But this just follows from the pythagorean theorem.
FWIW, I’m pretty sure that does work if you use integrals around the boundary rather than just evaulation.
When you say “the pythagorean theorem” do you just mean that the components of a vector are no bigger than its length?
I think I believe your argument now that if and are differentiable functions, then is a differentiable 1-form by this definition, with its usual derivative. That’s excellent. But I’m now trying to show the slightly more general-looking statement that if is a differentiable function and a differentiable 1-form, then , and I’m stuck. By writing
and similarly swapping and , I can write
as
which is
but I can’t see how to write the last two terms as . I seem to need to combine them to invoke differentiability of , but they are multiplied by evaluated on different vectors, so I can’t factor that out.
If we can get this to work, then hopefully it will generalize to the product rule . After that, the next question would be whether differentiability of is sufficient to imply . I’m not sure whether to be too hopeful or not.
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